Sigh...
the only way of making the poor richer is by making the rich richer, and if you make the rich poorer you will force the poor poorer.
So you're saying if we take money from the poor and give it to the rich, money will magically appear in the hands of the poor?
Under your logic, there can
never be any variance in the gap between rich and poor. Explain to me this logic please? How does one make the rich richer, where does the money come from?
Edited 9/6/2015 02:54:37